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Monday Puzzle

Written by Open Thread
Monday, 04 August 2008
If you see some part of an apple but not every part of the apple, then you see not an apple but only part of an apple. Since no one ever sees every part of an apple, no one ever sees an apple. The argument isn't restricted to apples. Peaches, pears, plums, cars, books, and people - no one ever sees them. Indeed, no one ever sees anything. What is wrong with this argument? ___________________ (See p. 100 of Jay F. Rosenberg (1984). The Practice of Philosophy . NJ: Prentice-Hall.) Set as favorite Bookmark Email This Trackback(0) TrackBack URI for this entry Comments (2) Subscribe to this comment's feed Show/Hide comments hmm written by Daniel.Waweru , August 04, 2008 The trick is in the equivocation of the first sentence: seeing means both what is seen (the apple) and how it is seen (by seeing a part of the apple's surface). One doesn't have to see (that is be looking at) every part of the apple in order to see (that is perceive) the apple. Is this correct, Eds? report abuse vote down vote up Votes: +0 ... written by abdulmote , August 05, 2008 I do not have to see the whole at once, for me to see the thing at all. Partly seen is partly seen and can be a representaion of the whole, be it partially so. But it does not mean 'not seen at all' because it is partly seen and there it is so. The whole may be different once all the parts have been seen. But the part seen bears the influence of the whole to be seen. However, a broad mind shall choose to remain so and open to see all, only to make its final mind when the whole has been seen once and for all. But to see, yes we certainly do, be it partly to start with, and the eventual whole when we truly get to know it all. report abuse vote down vote up Votes: +0 Show/Hide comment form Write comment Name Email Title Comment smaller \| bigger Subscribe via email (Registered users only) I have read and agree to the Terms of Usage. Write the displayed characters
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